Madam, - Some Roman Catholic correspondents who have written to defend the dogma of Mary's perpetual virginity might be surprised by Matthew's account of the birth of Christ.
"His mother, Mary, was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit" (Matt 1:18). Similarly, Matthew records that Joseph "did what the angel of the Lord commanded, and took Mary home as his wife. But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son" (Matt.1:24,25).
Matthew was obviously concerned to teach that Jesus is the Son of God and not Joseph's child. His references to the timing of their marriage and sexual union contain the assumption that their marriage was normal after Christ's birth. Indeed, these statements would be highly misleading had Joseph and Mary maintained a sexless marriage after the birth of Jesus.
Does Rome expect us to believe that in drawing attention to the timing and not the nature of the marriage union of Joseph and Mary, Matthew got it wrong? - Yours, etc.,
IAN KENNEDY, Tramore, Co Waterford.